47948201 Posted November 3, 2012 Share Posted November 3, 2012 Geez I must seem so helpless on this forum (not that I'm not) but anyway Useless though it may be, does this logic (and more importantly, the ending equation) make sense? Can it be made prettier? Etc. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kramy Posted November 3, 2012 Share Posted November 3, 2012 You're not the only one bro T___T Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
shaymin Posted November 3, 2012 Share Posted November 3, 2012 Your units do not make sense. Force has units of momentum divided by time; dp = F dt, and it looks like you are indeed given some time-integrated impulse which you designate p. Also, W = F * d is correct, but only when force is not a function of length. I assume v0 is intended as a dimensionless factor in your first line? Perhaps you mean v = v0+at, where v0 has units of length over time, which makes more sense. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
47948201 Posted November 3, 2012 Author Share Posted November 3, 2012 WHOOPS LOL yeah I forgot the plus. So that would just make the v0 go to the left with an addition sign, right? And the P is supposed to be capitalized for Power, not impulse, sorry. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
shaymin Posted November 3, 2012 Share Posted November 3, 2012 OK, then that should be right assuming power is not a function of time. I usually denote power as Q dot or W dot (with the dot above the Q or W) so I got confused there. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
47948201 Posted November 3, 2012 Author Share Posted November 3, 2012 Oh awesome so it's ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
shaymin Posted November 3, 2012 Share Posted November 3, 2012 yes Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
shaymin Posted November 3, 2012 Share Posted November 3, 2012 oh wait, there should be a factor of 1/d for the power-containing term. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
47948201 Posted November 3, 2012 Author Share Posted November 3, 2012 Factor of 1/d as in ? Where'd the d come from? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zkirsche Posted November 3, 2012 Share Posted November 3, 2012 Because you lost the d going into step 4 for no reason. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
47948201 Posted November 4, 2012 Author Share Posted November 4, 2012 *looks* ...*facepalm* I suppose I did, whoops. So that's good now? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zkirsche Posted November 4, 2012 Share Posted November 4, 2012 Should be. Why do you need that equation though? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
47948201 Posted November 4, 2012 Author Share Posted November 4, 2012 It's just my awful attempt at a reply to the idea of "Speed is Power" xP Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Esau of Isaac Posted November 4, 2012 Share Posted November 4, 2012 Did you make sure to calculate the gravitational pull of pressure at relativistic speeds? You can't forget that part, it's imperative in whatever it is you're doing. Physics is confusing and sucks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lord Raven Posted November 7, 2012 Share Posted November 7, 2012 It's just my awful attempt at a reply to the idea of "Speed is Power" xP Umm...? Still don't entirely understand... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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